Russell’s paradox – Phallic function

May 12, 2008

This is not to forget: As the Phallus is the signifying signifier that stands for the symbolization as a process. By having the Phallus, as a mandatory solution after the Oedipus-stage, one’s place is designated and grants a defined meaning for the subject. Although Phallus is a signifier, it is not in the Lacanian Set (mathematically-speaking), as it stands for a process. Here -as I was reminded – we can draw analogy between the Phallus’ position and Russell’s paradox.Russell’s paradox is defined by Wikipedia:

It might be assumed that, for any formal criterion, a set exists whose members are those objects (and only those objects) that satisfy the criterion; but this assumption is disproved by a set containing exactly the sets that are not members of themselves. If such a set qualifies as a member of itself, it would contradict its own definition as a set containing sets that are not members of themselves. On the other hand, if such a set is not a member of itself, it would qualify as a member of itself by the same definition[…]

To summarize, P(hallus) is in the LS if it is not in it, and is not is the LS if it is. In set-builder notation:

LS={Ph I Ph Ph}


2 Responses to “Russell’s paradox – Phallic function”

  1. Dragon Z. Says:

    yeah. an easier explanation: the Phallus is considered to be an objet a, since all you can ever get acces to is its effect. In other words, it’s there but it’s not. The moment you’d spot it, it’s already gone. Spooky, hah?

  2. kelemenzsolt Says:

    So, it’s like the struggle for the Desire? I mean, the mechanism. We are kinda dependant upon the Desire, which marks our way,including our acts,but we can never fulfill our Desire…That is why Lacan says the Phallus can ONLY operate from behind?

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